Long time before the reported
speech in luke 3:21-22 and
mathew 3:16-17, prophet isaiah,
who existed in about 700 years
before jesus christ reported what is
originally said in luke 3:21-22 and
mathew 3:16-17 about jesus. Let
us read: God says [voice from
heaven]; \”behold my servant
whom i uphold [chosen]; mine
elect, in whom my soul is delighted
[whom iam pleased with]; i have
put my spirit [holy spirit] upon him;
he shall bring forth judgement to
the nations (12 tribes of israel)\”
isaiah 42:1: saint mathew applied
the above prophecy of isaiah to
jesus christ in mathew 12:17-18
where he said ;- \”that it might be
fulfilled wich was spoken by esaias
the prophet, saying; behold my
servant, whom i have chosen, my
beloved in whom my soul is well
pleased; i will put my spirit upon
him, and he shall show judgement
to the Gentiles\”. Therefore, as far
as prophet isaiah was concerned,
God addressed jesus from heaven
as his beloved servant, and not His
\”beloved son\”. Which testimony
then, is the greatest between the
evidence of prophet isaiah and
that of mathew an luke? Of course!
Isaiah\’s testimony is more truthfull,
rational and acceptable than that
of luke and mathew because
isaiah was a prophet of God,
mathew was only a disciple of
jesus, and his authorship of the
book of mathew as attributed to
him is doubtfull; this is because if
he was the author of the book
attributed to him he will not have
written in mathew 9:9 that; \”and as
jesus passed forth thence, he saw
a man named mathew, sitting at
the receipt of custom; and he said
unto him; follow me. And he
[mathew] arose and followed him\”.
Was mathew the one giving the
above evidence? Can he be
speaking about him self in the third
person singular? This shows that it
was not mathew that wrote the
whole books of mathew. How can
one blindly applied mathew
3:16-17 about the voice from
heaven to mathew? We also found
another contradiction of mathew
9:9 above, in mark 2:14 which
says;- \”and as he(jesus) passed
by, he saw levi the son of alphae-
us sitting at the receipt of custom,
and saod unto him, follow me and
he arose and followed him\”. The
contradiction between the reports
of mathew 9:9 and mark 2:14 is
quite clear. Who was the very
person that jesus saw sitting at the
receipt of custo; mathew or levi the
son of alphae-us? One cannot
blindly accept the testimony of
mathew in chapter 3:16-17.
Without clearing this manifest
contradiction between mathew
3:16-17 and isaiah 42:1, and one
cannot blindly accept the view of
the christians deceitfully nick-
named mathew as levi without any
convincing evidencein order to
reconcile the contradiction there-
in.
Moreover, the statements in Luke
3:21:22 about the voice from
heaven cannot be attributed to
Luke who claimed that the report
was delivered to him from another
unknown source (see Luke 1:2-3);-
\”even as they delivered them unto
us, which from the begining were
eye witnesses, and ministers of
word; it seems good to me also,
having had perfect understanding
of All things from the very first, to
write unto you in order, most
excellent the oph-i-lus\”. The
above words show that Luke was
not an eye witness to what
happened at river-jordan when
jesus was baptized by john the
baptist as reported in Luke
3:21:22. Therefore, it was only a
rumour from another source. And
this rumour contradicted what has
been prophesied about jesus in
isaiah 42:1, where God called
jesus his beloved servant with
whom he is well pleased, and not
\”his beloved son in whom he is
well pleased\” as written in Luke. it
is also significance to know that
Luke (a physician) was not even
among jesus\’s 12 disciples that
are mentioned in mathew 10:2-4.
how then, can he changed the
original address of God to jesus in
isaiah 42:1 and mathew 12:18
where jesus is called \”beloved
servant of God\” to \”beloved son
of God\”? Also in the acts of the
apostles of the revised version of
the bible, jesus is addressed as
the servant of God, but the writers
of king james version
unceremoniously changed it to son
of God. Let us see how they
deceitfully changed it.
¡) Acts 3:13: \”the God of abraham,
and isaac, and of jacob, the God of
our fathers, has Glorified his
Servant Whom ye delivered up
denied him in the presence of
pilate, when he was determined to
let him Go\”.
¡¡) Acts 3:26: \”unto you first God,
having raised up his Servant
Jesus sent him to bless you, in
turning away everyone of you from
his iniquities\”.
¡¡¡) Acts 4:27: \”for a truth, against
thy holy Servant (jesus) whom
thou hast annointed\”.
iv) Acts 4:30: \”by stretching forth
thine hand to heal; and that signs
and wonders may be done by
name of your holy Servant Jesus\”
All the above quotations in the
book of acts of the apostles are
directly from the following versions
of the bible such as:- Revised
Standard Version, Living Bible,
Jerusalem Bible, New world
Translation, New international
Version, New English Bible and
the new king james version of
1611, unceremoniously changed
the the phrase \’servant of God\’ to
the phrase \’son of God\’ in the
above chapters and verses of acts
of the apostles? Wow! On what
authority does the king james
version made this radiculous u-
turn from jesus being \’servant of
God\’ to jesus being \’Son of God
\’? Most interestingly, the 32
christian eminent scholars from 50
different denominations had
condemned the king james
versions as defective and
erroneous. And i quote:- \”yet the
king james version of the new
testament has grave defect. In the
14th century the development of
the biblical studies and discovery
of many manuscript more ancient
than those upon which the king
jamea version was based made it
manifest, that those defects are so
many and so serious as to call for
the revision of the english
translation\”. They also assert that;
\’the king james version of the new
testament was based upon a
Greek text that was recorded by
mistakes containing the
accumulated errors of 14th
centuries of manuscript copying\’.
See the preface of the revised
standard version(RSV) of 1952
and 1971, page 5, for the above
details. It is this same king james
version that changed the word \’an
eagle\’ as written in revelation 8:13
of the RSV, NLV, NWT, GNB, and
others to the word \’an angel\’ in
thesame revelation 8:13! What a
contradiction! An angel or an
eagle? A son or servant? Also, in
the amplified bible, the two words
\’son and servant\’ were applied to
jesus at the same time in acts
3:13, acts 3:26, acts 4:27 and acts
4:30 in order to cause another
comfusion. It is written as;- \’the
lord of abraha, isaac and jacob,
the God our father has glorified his
son and servant jesus\” acts 3:13
etc. Can someone be the son and
servant of his father at thesame
time? The bible gives us the clear
distinction of the words \’son and
servant\’ in john 8:35;- \’and the
servant abideth not in the house
forever but the son abideth forever
\’. How then can jesus be called
son and servant of god at thesame
time? Another contradiction can be
found in the case of israel in
exodos 4:22 where god is reported
to have said;- \”and thou (moses)
shall say unto pharoah. Thus saith
the LORD, israel is my son, even
my first born\” even my first born\”:
but surprisingly, in isaiah 49:3 of
thesame Bible, God is reported to
have said;- \’and said unto me,
thou art my servant, o israel, in
whom i will be glorified\”. Was
israel the son or servant of God as
reported above? The glorious Qur
\’an has confirmed to us that jesus
is truly a servant of God as
mentioned in isaiah 42:1, mathew
12:18, john 13:16, acts 3:13, acts
4:27, and acts 4:30, of revised
standard version, Good news
bible, living bible e.t.c references
can be found in Qur\’an 19:30
where jesus is reported to have
said: A) \’Verily iam the servant of
God, He has given me the
scripture and made me prophet\’
B) Qur\’an 43:59;- he(jesus) was
not more than a servant. We
granted our favour to him, and we
made him an example for the
children of israel\’.
C) Qur\’an 4:172;- \’the messiah
(jesus) will never be proud to
reject to be a servant of Allah, nor
the angels who are near (to Allah).
And whosoever rejects his worship
and is proud, then he will gather
them all together to himself.
Also the following verses of the
bible addressed jesus as a
prophet of God (and not) son of
God. They are: mathew 21:10-11,
mathew 21:46, mark 6:4, john
6:14, luke 24:19, luke 13:32-33
e.t.c. If the bible addressed jesus
as a prophet and servant of God,
why then should he be called \’son
of God\’ again? Is that not a
contradiction in the bible? In II
philippians 2:6-7, it is written that
jesus was in the form of God but
he demoted himself from God ship
and became an obedient servant,
this is very ridiculous and irrational
\’.